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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 02:50

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why are liberals so bad at grasping alternative facts? For example, if something doesn’t happen the exact same way Trump described it, liberals dismiss it as false; while conservatives are able to fully understand the underlying principle.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why do Brits drive a lot more dangerously compared to Americans? Is there just no courtesy when driving in the UK?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.